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单词 ProofOfHartmanGrobmanTheorem
释义

proof of Hartman-Grobman theorem


Lemma 1.

Let A:EE be an hyperbolic isomorphism, and let φ and ψbe ε-Lipschitz maps from E to itself such that φ(0)=ψ(0)=0.If ε is sufficiently small, then A+φ and A+ψ are topologically conjugate.

Since A is hyperbolic, we have E=EsEu and there is λ<1(possibly changing the norm of E by an equivalentMathworldPlanetmathPlanetmathPlanetmathPlanetmath box-type one), called the skewness of A,such that

A|Es<λ,A-1|Eu<λ

and

x=max{xs,xu}.

Let us denote by (E~,0) the Banach spaceMathworldPlanetmath of all boundedPlanetmathPlanetmath, continuous mapsMathworldPlanetmath from Eto itself, with the norm of the supremumMathworldPlanetmathPlanetmath induced by the norm of E.The operatorMathworldPlanetmath A induces a linear operator A~:E~E~ defined by(A~u)(x)=A(u(x)), which is also hyperbolic. In fact, lettingE~i be the set of all maps u:E~E~ whose range is containedin Ei (for i=s,u) we have that E~=E~sE~u is a hyperbolic splittingfor A~ with the same skewness as A.

From now on we denote the projection of x to Ei by xi, andthe restrictionPlanetmathPlanetmath A|Ei:EiEi by Ai (i=s,u).

We will try to find a conjugation of the form I+u where uE~.

Proposition 1.

There exists ε>0 such that if φ and ψ are ε-LipschitzPlanetmathPlanetmath,then there is a unique uE~ such that

(I+u)(A+φ)=(A+ψ)(I+u).
Proof.

We want to find u such that

A+φ+u(A+φ)=A+Au+ψ(I+u)

which is the same as

φ+u(A+φ)=Au+ψ(I+u).

This can be rewriten as

uu=Au-1(uu(A+φ)+φu-ψu(I+u))
us=(Asus+ψs(I+u)-φs)(A+φ)-1,

where we use the fact that by the Lipschitz inverse mapping theorem, if Lip(φ)<1/λA-1-1(where λ is the skewness of A) then A+φ is invertible with Lipschitz inversePlanetmathPlanetmathPlanetmath.

Now define Γ:E~E~ by

Γs(u)=(Asus+ψs(I+u)-φs)(A+φ)-1
Γu(u)=Au-1(uu(A+φ)+φu-ψu(I+u))

We assert that, if ε is small, Γ is a contraction.In fact,

Γs(u)-Γs(v)0=(As(us-vs)+ψs(I+u)-ψs(I+v))(A+φ)-10
A~s(us-vs)(A+φ)-10+(ψs(I+u)-ψs(I+v))(A+φ)-10
λus-vs0+εu-v0
(λ+ε)u-v0

and

Γu(u)-Γu(v)0=Au-1(uu(A+φ)-vu(A+φ)-ψu(I+u)+ψu(I+v))0
A~u-1(uu(A+φ)-vu(A+φ)0+ψu(I+u)-ψu(I+v)0)
λ(uu-vu0+εu-v0)
λ(1+ε)u-v0.

Thus, if ε<ε0min{λ,(1-λ)/λ}, Γ has Lipschitz constantsmaller than 1, so it is a contraction. Hence u exists and is unique.∎

Proposition 2.

The map u from the previous propositionPlanetmathPlanetmath is a homeomorphism.

Proof.

Using the previous proposition with φ and ψ switched, we get a uniquevE~ such that

(I+v)(A+ψ)=(A+φ)(I+v).

It follows that

(I+v)(I+u)(A+φ)=(I+v)(A+ψ)(I+u)=(A+φ)(I+v)(I+u).(1)

Also, the previous proposition with φ=ψ implies thatthat there is a unique wE~ such that

(I+w)(A+φ)=(A+φ)(I+w),

which obviously is w=0. But since (I+v)(I+u)=I+(u+v+uv) and u+v+uvE~,(1) implies that w=u+v+uv is a solution of the above equation, so that u+v+uv=0 and (I+v)(I+u)=I. In a similar way, we see that (I+u)(I+v)=I. Hence I+u is invertible, with continuousMathworldPlanetmath inverse.∎

The two previous propositions prove the lemma.

Proposition 3.

If U is an open neighborhood of 0 and f:UEis a C1 map with f(0)=0, then for every ε>0 there is δ>0 such thatφf-Df(0) is ε-Lipschitz in the ball B(0,δ).

Proof.

This is a direct consequence of the mean value inequality and thefact that Dφ is continuous and Dφ(0)=0.∎

Proposition 4.

There is a constant k such that if φ:B¯(0,r)E is an ε-Lipschitz map, thenthere is a kε-Lipschitz map φ~:EEwhich coincides with φ in B(0,r/2).

Proof.

Let η: be a 𝒞 bump function: an infinitelydifferentiable map such thatη(x)=1 for x<1/2 and η(x)=0 for x>1, with derivativePlanetmathPlanetmath bounded by M and |η(x)1 for all x.Now define φ~(x)=φ(x)η(x/r) (when φ(x) is notdefined, we assume that it is zero).If x and y are both in B(0,r) then we have

φ~(x)-φ~(y)=φ(x)η(x/r)-φ(y)η(y/r)
(φ(x)-φ(y))η(x/r)+φ(y)(η(x/r)-η(y/r))
εx-y+φ(y)-φ(0)η(x/r)-η(y/r)
εx-y+εy(Mx-y/r)
(M+1)εx-y;

if x is in B(0,r) and y is not, then

φ~(x)-φ~(y)=φ~(x)-φ~(y*),

where y* is defined as x+τ(y-x) with

τ=sup{t:x+t(y-x)EB(0,r)}

This is true because φ~(y*)=0. Also, x-y*=τx-yx-y; hence

φ~(x)-φ~(y)=φ~(x)-φ~(y*)(M+1)εx-y*(M+1)εx-y.

Finally, if both x and y are outside B(0,r), thenφ~(x)-φ~(y)=0(M+1)x-y. Letting k=M+1 weget the desired result.∎

Proof of the theorem.Taking the particular ψ=0 in the lemma, we observe thatthere is ε>0 such that for any ε-Lipschitz map φ,Df(0) is conjugate to φ+Df(0).Choose δ such that f-Df(0) is ε/k-Lipschitz in B(0,2δ).Let φ~ be the ε-Lipschitz extensionPlanetmathPlanetmath of f-Df(0) toB(0,δ) obtained from the previous proposition. We have thatDf(0)+φ~ is conjugate to Df(0). But for xB(0,δ) we haveDf(0)+φ~=f, so that f is locally conjugate to Df(0).

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