proof of theorem on equivalent valuations
It is easy to see that and are equivalent valuations for any constant — it follows from the fact that if and only if .
Assume that the valuations and are equivalent
.Let be an element of such that . Because the valuations are assumed to be equivalent, it is also the case that . Hence, there must exist positive constants and such that and .
We will show that show that for all by contradiction.
Let be any element of such that . Assume that . Then either or . We may assume that without loss of generality.
Since , there exists an integer such that . Let be the least integer such that . Then we have
Since , this implies that
but then
and
which is impossible because the two valuations are assumed to be equivalent.
Q.E.D